100% Original, Plagiarism Free, Tailored to your instructions

Order Now!

Test for Understanding

Test for Understanding
2) Description
This is a 30-question quiz and not a paper written on the topic. This quiz will assess your knowledge on (Personality and Assessment Diagnosis) Please complete the quiz . Each question is worth 1 point for a total of 30 points.
2) Description
Quiz – Week 8
3) Note to the writer:
Answer the following quiz questions ( that are in the above link Quiz-Week 8)by clicking on the correct answer. I have copied them here for you. the writer.
Please Do NOT just insert any info as your answers. You must complete this quiz by putting the correct answers!.as each correct answer has 1 point. You must have information on Personality and Assessment Diagnosis, Assessment instruments and methods, their reliability,uses ,etc to answer these 30 questions correctly. Thank you . You can do here below, or by clicking on the above link. Thank you
Here is my Quiz-Week8 questions.
Question 1
With a reliability coefficient of 0.81, using classical test theory we would interpret that the:
a. Amount of error variance to observed variance is 81 percent
b. Amount of true variance to observed variance is 81 percent
c. Instrument has good enough reliability
d. Instrument’s validity coefficient would be 0.812
Question 2
According to classical test theory, if the observed variance of a test is 50 and the true variance is 40, what is the estimated reliability of the test?
Question 3
If the correlation between one’s interest in statistics and being a “fun date” was –0.70, it would mean that:
a. The higher someone’s interest was in statistics, the more likely it would be that he or she is a fun date
b. The higher someone’s interest was in statistics, the less likely it would be that he or she is a fun date
c. There is a 70% chance that someone with an interest in statistics is a fun date
d. There is a 30% chance that someone with an interest in statistics is a fun date
Question 4
The ABC Self-Concept Inventory has a split-half reliability coefficient of 0.90, and the XYZ Self-Concept Inventory has a Spearman-Brown reliability coefficient of 0.90. If all other factors are equal, which instrument would you choose to use?
a. ABC
b. XYZ
c. Either one because they are equal
d. Neither one
Question 5
If an instrument requires some professional judgments in scoring, then the manual should also include information on:
a. Interrater reliability
b. Corrections of the reliability coefficients using the Spearman-Brown formula
c. Both KR 20s and KR 21s
d. Test-retest reliability coefficients
Question 6
Joe had a score of 72 on the Counseling Aptitude Scale, and the standard error of measurement of the scale is 3. Where would we expect Tom’s true score to fall 99.5 percent of the time?
a. 71 to 73
b. 69 to 75
c. 66 to 78
d. 63 to 81
Question 7
A low, non-significant correlation between an observation-based assessment of symptoms of autism and a teacher-report of ADHD symptoms provides ____________ of the validity of the autism measure.
a. convergent evidence
b. multimethod evidence
c. discriminant evidence
d. differential evidence
Question 8
In using regression to predict an individual’s performance on the criterion based on his or her score on the instrument, the prediction is least accurate when the correlation is:
Question 9
If an assessment identifies a child as having ADHD when the child does not have ADHD, this would be an example of:
a. A false negative
b. A false positive
c. A correct diagnosis
d. A differential diagnosis
Question 10
The higher the item difficulty index (i.e., 0.00 to 1.00), the ________ the item.
a. easier
b. harder
c. more reliable
d. less reliable
Question 11
Which of the following would be the most appropriate method of identifying and selecting psychometrically sound assessment instruments?
a. Using only assessments with which you have been trained during graduate school
b. Consulting the Mental Measurements Yearbook or Tests in Print
c. Visiting the American Psychological Association website for a review of recently published tests
d. Consulting with your professional mentor
Question 12
Using the general guidelines of user qualifications of Level A, Level B, and Level C, a clinician who has a master’s degree in counseling and has had a course in assessment in counseling would be qualified to use:
a. Level A instruments only
b. Level A and Level B instruments
c. Level C instruments only
d. Level A, Level B, and Level C instruments
Question 13
Communication of testing or assessment results:
a. Is a discrete activity separate from counseling
b. Should only be provided if asked for by the client
c. Should be an integral part of the counseling process
d. Is only provided upon completion of the counseling relationship
Question 14
Whenever possible, the interpretation of assessment results should involve the use of:
a. Precise psychometric terms exclusively in order to present the results in a professional manner
b. Vague terms so that the client does not think the results are infallible
c. Descriptive terms that accompany the numerical scores to aid in the understanding
d. Only the numerical scores, as other information may confuse the client
Question 15
An effective initial interview should involve a balance of gathering information and:
a. Describing the theoretical orientation of the clinician
b. Beginning the implementation of therapeutic interventions
c. Building a therapeutic relationship
d. Establishing ground rules for fee payment
Question 16
When interviewing clients, counselors need to attend to both the _____________ and the __________ of the interview.
a. breadth; depth
b. specificity; intensity
c. content; process
d. length; structure
Question 17
In conducting an interview with a client from another culture, the counselor should:
a. Conduct the interview using closed-ended questions
b. Consider the degree to which self-disclosure is encouraged in that culture
c. Use a multiple-choice format in the interviewing
d. Use checklists or rating scales rather than interviews
Question 18
When assessing the risk of suicide, the counselor should explore:
a.If there is an actual plan
b.The availability of the method and the degree to which the method is lethal
c.Past, present, and future stressors
d.All of the above
Question 19
A ______________ may be conducted during the initial session or intake interview for the purpose of understanding a client’s level of functioning and self-presentation.
a. detailed structured interview
b. self-administered checklist
c. mental status exam (MSE)
d. perception-presentation interview
Question 20
The most widely employed method of personality assessment is:
a. Observation
b. The MMPI-2
c. Structured interviews
d. Rating scales
Question 21
If an individual has an elevated L Scale (Lie Scale) on the MMPI-2, then the individual:
a. Has a tendency to consistently lie
b. Did not lie on any of the questions
c. Lied on almost all of the questions
d. Attempted to “look good” while answering some of the questions
Question 22
Research on the general stability of the five factors of personality over the lifespan indicates all of the following except:
a. Agreeableness tends to increase throughout adulthood
b. Social dominance, emotional stability, and conscientiousness increase during early adulthood
c. Personality changes most dramatically in adolescence and is largely set by the age of 30
d. Aspects of adult personality can change into one’s 70s
Question 23
An introverted client who uses senses to perceive information, uses feelings to process information, and whose orientation to the outer world is judgment would have which of the following Myers-Briggs personality types?
Question 24
The tendency for individuals to respond to personality test items in a socially acceptable way, rather than in a way that truly reflects their personality, is known as:
a. social conformity
b. social acceptability
c. social desirability
d. response set
Question 25
Projective techniques, as distinguished from other personality instruments, have usually been designed to measure the:
a. Level of aggression in terms of psychodynamic theory
b. More typical and superficial aspects of personality
c. Client’s level of repression and hostility
d. Covert and underlying aspects of personality
Question 26
In order to use a projective technique to make a clinical decision, the counselor should be:
a. Trained extensively in using and interpreting the technique
b. Knowledgeable of the five factors of personality
c. Trained extensively in personality disorders
d. Knowledgeable of psychoanalytic theory
Question 27
In counseling, a 15-year-old client reports that he has repeatedly had to leave his classroom because there was a spider near his desk. He knows that his fear of spider is “over the top,” but he reports he cannot stay near one. When using the DSM-IV-TR, you would probably first consider:
a. Agoraphobia
b. A specific phobia
c. An impulse control disorder
d. A personality disorder
Question 28
A key difference between Axis I and Axis II disorders is that:
a. Axis I disorders are typically temporary, and Axis II disorders are more enduring
b. Axis I disorders are diagnosed in adulthood, and Axis II disorders are diagnosed in childhood
c. Axis I disorders are psychological in nature, and Axis II disorders are medical
d. There is no difference between Axis I and Axis II disorders
Question 29
If a client has a personality disorder, it:
a. Will be readily apparent in the first session
b. Can be readily assessed with the NEO-PI-3
c. Will become slowly evident through recurrent themes (e.g., relationship difficulties) and through the client’s interactions with the counselor
d. Is typically associated with legal difficulties and counselors should ask clients about their legal record in the first session
Question 30
A mark of a good psychological report is it:
a. Involves an overview of the client and a comprehensive interpretation of the assessment results
b. Contains a summary of intelligence, achievement, and personality testing
c. Concludes with both a DSM-IV Axis I and Axis II diagnosis
d. Could be understood by someone with an eighth-grade education

Our Service Charter

  1. Excellent Quality / 100% Plagiarism-Free

    We employ a number of measures to ensure top quality essays. The papers go through a system of quality control prior to delivery. We run plagiarism checks on each paper to ensure that they will be 100% plagiarism-free. So, only clean copies hit customers’ emails. We also never resell the papers completed by our writers. So, once it is checked using a plagiarism checker, the paper will be unique. Speaking of the academic writing standards, we will stick to the assignment brief given by the customer and assign the perfect writer. By saying “the perfect writer” we mean the one having an academic degree in the customer’s study field and positive feedback from other customers.
  2. Free Revisions

    We keep the quality bar of all papers high. But in case you need some extra brilliance to the paper, here’s what to do. First of all, you can choose a top writer. It means that we will assign an expert with a degree in your subject. And secondly, you can rely on our editing services. Our editors will revise your papers, checking whether or not they comply with high standards of academic writing. In addition, editing entails adjusting content if it’s off the topic, adding more sources, refining the language style, and making sure the referencing style is followed.
  3. Confidentiality / 100% No Disclosure

    We make sure that clients’ personal data remains confidential and is not exploited for any purposes beyond those related to our services. We only ask you to provide us with the information that is required to produce the paper according to your writing needs. Please note that the payment info is protected as well. Feel free to refer to the support team for more information about our payment methods. The fact that you used our service is kept secret due to the advanced security standards. So, you can be sure that no one will find out that you got a paper from our writing service.
  4. Money Back Guarantee

    If the writer doesn’t address all the questions on your assignment brief or the delivered paper appears to be off the topic, you can ask for a refund. Or, if it is applicable, you can opt in for free revision within 14-30 days, depending on your paper’s length. The revision or refund request should be sent within 14 days after delivery. The customer gets 100% money-back in case they haven't downloaded the paper. All approved refunds will be returned to the customer’s credit card or Bonus Balance in a form of store credit. Take a note that we will send an extra compensation if the customers goes with a store credit.
  5. 24/7 Customer Support

    We have a support team working 24/7 ready to give your issue concerning the order their immediate attention. If you have any questions about the ordering process, communication with the writer, payment options, feel free to join live chat. Be sure to get a fast response. They can also give you the exact price quote, taking into account the timing, desired academic level of the paper, and the number of pages.

Excellent Quality
Zero Plagiarism
Expert Writers

Instant Quote

Single spaced
approx 275 words per page
Urgency (Less urgent, less costly):
Total Cost: NaN

Get 10% Off on your 1st order!